The LDS questions

Concept 1:  The Bible was written to be understood, not to be confusing.  All-important teachings are clarified again and again.  Reading and understanding the Bible is straightforward, and should require no interpretation other than what the Bible itself provides.
2 Corinthians 3:12
Concept #2:  If any passage of scripture is unclear, we must refer to other passages for clarification.  This is known as “scripture interperets scripture”.  Since the Bible is given by God (2 Timothy 3:16), it cannot contradict itself, or be in error.  In any case where there is doubt as to the meaning of the passage, we must determine the passage based on the context of the message, compared to similar passages.

Beware of other gospels and false teachings
•	Galatians 1:6-9
•	James 1:26-27
•	2 Peter (all)
•	1 John 4:1-3
•	2 John 1:7-11

Description of false teachers
•	1 Timothy 4:1-5
Description of good teachers:
•	1 Timothy 4:6-10
The one True restored Church?
The LDS Church claims that Jesus provided a way for all men to have eternal life, but that in order to be truly saved, we must have faith.  In addition to having faith, we must perform several ordinances and meet certain requirements such as: live a Godly life, follow all ordinances of the LDS Church, avoid consumption of hot beverages, pay tithes, perform temple ceremonies, be married in the temple, perform baptism for our dead relatives, and more.  Is this Biblical?  What did the Apostles who actually walked the Earth with Christ have to say about these things?
•	Acts 15:6-11, 24-29
•	Colossians 2:8-3:4
•	1 Timothy 4:1-5
•	Titus 1:10-2:1 Titus 3:3-11
•	Ephesians 2:8-9

Apostate Church restored?
Acts 3:20-21 and 2 Thessalonians 2:3 (Is this referring to the Church being restored after it had left the earth?
Key words: He shall send Jesus Christ.  What does the Bible teach about Christ coming again?
Matthew 24:3-31
1 Corinthians 15:23
1 Thessalonians 2:19
Revelation 19:11-13 (reference John 1:1-3)
What is restored at his second coming?
Revelation 21
What fell away?
Revelation 21:1
Does not a clear reading indicate that this is an end-times prediction?  Does this not read very clearly of the restoration of Jerusalem and the perfect Earth, which God originally created?

Is a total apostasy even possible?  Could God allow there to be no true believers at any time?
•	Psalms 33:11
•	Romans 11:1-5 (God always retains a remnant)
•	Matthew 16:18 (If there was a complete apostasy, would that not mean that the gates of Hell prevailed?)
•	Matthew 28:18-20 (Could He be with us always if there was a complete apostasy?)
•	Ephesians 3:21 (Could there have been an Apostasy if He was glorified throughout all ages?)
•	Ephesians 4:11-16 (Does this not speak of the Church growing toward maturity rather than degenerating?)
•	Hebrews 12:28 (Could the Church cease to exist if Christ’s kingdom cannot be moved?)

•	Acts 20:29-31 – Does this indicate a complete apostasy?
•	Acts 20:17 tells us whom he is talking to. (The Ephesians)
Later passages tell us that the Ephesian Church did indeed have these problems:

•	1Timothy is a letter to Timothy who is at Ephesus to correct these problems.
•	Furthermore, these problems have been addressed and purged, but they are warned to be diligent:
•	Revelation 2:1-7
Did you know that even LDS scriptures teach that there could not have been an apostasy?
3 Nephi 28:1-8 tells of three faithful Nephites who never died.  How could there be a complete apostasy if there are even three faithful on the Earth?
D&C also teaches that John never died.

1 Timothy 4:1-2 Does this indicate a total Apostasy?
How many does it will say will abandon the Faith?
Does this in any way indicate that there would be a complete apostasy?

Revelation 14:6 - The angel Moroni?
From where do you draw this conclusion?
Revelation 8:2 mention the seven original angels mentioned in Revelation
There are others revealed in 8:3 and 10:1.  If you are positive that the one in 14:6 is Moroni, who are these others?
If you are not sure who these others are, how can you claim to know for sure who the one in 14:6 is?
If you read 14:6-7 together, does this indicate an angel who is preaching a message of glory to God and impending judgment, or does it indicate a delivery of a new gospel or revelation?
Does “with a loud voice” sound like it is a secret message to only Joseph Smith, or one for all to hear?

Other questions:  If the LDS Church is the one and only true Church, why is it trying so hard through advertisement campaigns to convince the world at large that it is just another denomination?

Why does the LDS Church complain that other Christians are attacking them when one of the central doctrines of Mormonism is that all other Christians are false?  Isn’t that an attack on all other Christians?  Is this not contradictory with the current media message that the LDS Church is trying to spread?

Did Joseph Smith say that all other churches are an abomination to God?
Why is the LDS Church working so hard to be part of the interfaith movement – working with Protestants, Catholics, and others in the VISN Cable Network and disaster aid?
Does this mean that the Protestants, Catholics, and others are less of an abomination now than they were before, or that the Church is willingly joining forces with abominations to God, or that Joseph Smith was wrong?  

True Prophets of God?
Deuteronomy 13:1-8
D&C 84:4

Ephesians 2:20 What does this mean when it says God’s household is built on the foundation of prophets and apostles?  Once a foundation is built, does it need to be built again and again?
1 Corinthians 9:1 – eyewitness requirement
1 Corinthians 12:12 – All apostles were authenticated by miraculous signs.  Do Mormon Apostles perform these signs?
Revelation 21:14 – At the time of the end of the world, how many Apostles have there been?
Why would the Mormon Apostles not have been included?
Jude 3: What is the faith?  Did you know that the word translated “once”, is “hapax”, which means “once for all time?”
If it is given once for all time, does it need to be given again?

Galatians 1:8 (Do the teachings of your Church agree with the Bible?)
1 Thessalonians 5:21 (Are you taught in your Church to examine the Bible to see if it agrees, or are you taught that this will lead you astray, and instead, encouraged to rely on the teachings of the Church and its leaders (prophets) If scripture is given for these reasons, do we still need prophets?
1 Thessalonians 5:21 (Is scripture used to lead people astray, or for teaching, rebuking, correction, and training in righteousness?)
Can you show me in the Bible where the Church mentions the offices of “First Presidency”, “Patriarch”, and “High Priest”?
Can the LDS Church be a restoration of the Church if its structure is nowhere to be found in the Bible?
Does the Church teach that the Prophets are first in leadership, and Apostles are second?
1 Corinthians 12:28
John 16:13-15 (who is to be our teacher?)
If the Holy Spirit is our teacher, do we need a Prophet?
Amos 3:1 (Amos is telling them of a judgment that is about to come, that had never been predicted in the Bible before.)
All coming judgments have been preached through the end times through Daniel, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Christ, Paul, and John (in Revelation).
If we have prophecies clearly detailing what is to come between the time of the prophecies and the end times, do we need more prophets now?
Did you know that many of the Biblical prophecies are taking place in our times?
Restoration of the nation of Israel in the 1940’s 
Restoration of Babylon so that it can fall during the Great Tribulation (being done by Saddam Hussein)
Restoration of the Jewish Temple
Evolutionary teaching (2 Peter 3)
If events occurring now were predicted by the prophets, and end-time events were predicted, is it not reasonable to assume that all necessary revelation has been given?

Do you think that the Prophet’s word is more authoritative than scripture?
Which prophet do you think was right, Joseph Fielding Smith, who said the teachings of the prophet should be tested against scripture, or Ezra Taft Benson, who elevated the authority of the prophet over scripture?

Based on the D&C, Bruce McConkie concluded, “men are saved by giving heed to the words of the prophets and apostles sent among them and are damned for failure to heed the inspired testimony”.  What do you make of that?

Of  the D&C, the Book of Mormon, and the Pearl of Great Price, which you consider scripture given by a prophet?

Can a true Prophet of God contradict himself? Even if you ignore Deuteronomy’s warning not to trust any prophet who ever says something and it never comes to pass by saying that “He is only 100% accurate when speaking as a prophet, and is fallible at other times”, what if he speaks as a prophet and then changes his story while speaking as a prophet at a later time?  Does God change his mind?
Isaiah 14:24
Ezekiel 24:14
Malachi 3:6
James 1:17

Can Scriptures that are completely contradictory be in Harmony?  Do the Mormon “scriptures” pass the test of being 100% consistent and accurate if they change?

2 Nephi 31:21, Mosiah 15:4-5, Alma 11:26-29, 44
vs.
D&C 76:58, 121:28&32, 132:17&20&27
Vs.
Book of Abraham 4-5

Did you know that the original scripts of papyrus from which Joseph Smith supposedly translated the Book of Abraham were later rediscovered and translated by real Egyptologists?  Did you know that they turned out to be portions of the Egyptian Book of the Dead, a pagan religious book?

Doctrines of God
Is there more than one God?
Deuteronomy 4:35
Deuteronomy 33:26
2 Samuel 7:22
Isaiah 43:10
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 46:5,9
 Jeremiah 10:6

BOM Alma 11:22-39

Does Genesis 1:26-27 mean plural gods created man?
No.  This fits in fine with the Christian concept of the Trinity.
Note that verse 26 where God says, “us” and “our”; in verse 27, “he created” is singular.
The Hebrew word for God here is translated as follows:
Transliterated: 'elohiym 
Phonetic: el-o-heem' 

gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: --angels, X exceeding, God (gods)(-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.

Because the word is a plural word even when it is used to referring specifically to the one true God, the words translated “our” and “us” (which are by nature singular), become changed to the plural form.  The Hebrew language often refers to singular persons and places as plural in order to add emphasis, majesty, or importance.  The fact that verse 27 is singular, and is referring to the same creator, indicates that the intent of using the word 'elohiym was intended to give the creator of man supreme glory.  The same word is used elsewhere, where 

Worshipping any God other than the one true God, or claiming He is at all like a man is making God our own image, and is idolatry.
Deuteronomy 4:15-19
John 4:24
Acts 17 : 27-29
Romans 1:23

Why did Joseph Smith go from teaching that God is a personage of spirit in “Lectures on Faith”, lecture five to that God has a body of flesh and bone in D&C 130?

Does God have a body of flesh and bone?
Numbers 23:19
1 Samuel 15:29
Hosea 11:9
John 4:24
2 Corinthians 3:17

Even the Book of Mormon teaches this
Alma 31:15 (this says “art and was a spirit, and wilt be forever”, right?  Not a glorified man at any point?

Further Biblical texts supporting that God is a spirit:  He cannot be seen:
1 Timothy 1:17
Colossians 1:15
John 1:18

Exodus 33:11 – The face of God?  Does this teach that God has a face?
Read in context: Drop to verse 18 – obviously, verse 11 is referring to a figurative reference.  Moses spoke to God as he would speak to a friend.  “Face to face” is intended to emphasize that Moses had a personal relationship with God.

John 14:9 – does this mean the Father has a body exactly like the Son?  
In context, this verse, as with all of the book of John is telling us that Jesus words, works, and mission centered on the Father, and Jesus’ life itself is the ultimate revelation of the Father.  He revealed the Father’s message, His glory, His power, His love, His compassion, His sinless nature, His forgiveness, His judgment, and His nature.  The same is with Hebrews 1:3

Could Joseph Smith have seen God, as he claimed, when even Moses was not able to see God?
Exodus 33:18
Does God change?  Has He ever changed?  Is He merely and exalted man?
Psalms 102:26-27
James 1:17
Malachi 3:6
Psalm 90:2
(Even the Book of Mormon teaches that He does and has never changed)
Moroni 8:18

1 Corinthians 8:5 for though there be that are called gods in heaven and earth
Read 8:1-4.  Is this talking about true gods or exalted men, or is it talking about idol worship?
Does it say that they are gods, or they are called gods?
At work, I am called “the Pinnacle god” by Paul, when I can solve a problem with the Pinnacle registers that he can’t.  Does this mean that I am a god, or does he simply call me a god?  (Jokingly, I assure you)

Psalm 82:1,6 and John 10:34 – ye are gods
Reading Psalm 82, he is addressing judges, who have the authority to execute the law.  However, they are unjust (vs 2).  They claim the power of God, and of judgment, and the Psalmist is mocking them.  Were he truly referring to them ad true gods, there would be no verse 7, which says, “but ye shall die like men”

This is further supported by the context of John 10:31-34.  He is pointing out to them, rather harshly, that they seek to stone him for committing blasphemy, when their predecessors were the true blasphemers, believing themselves equal to God.  He is pointing out to them that for them to stone Him for blasphemy is utter hypocrisy.

Isaiah 44:8 Either there truly are no other gods, or God is not all knowing.  If your god is not smart enough to know that there are others like him, he is not a very intelligent god.  My God, however, knows everything, including whether or not He is unique.  He could not have had a father, a grandfather, or a great grandfather, because they would have been other gods.  If he had them, but did not know of them, then he is dumb.  If he knows of them but issued this statement anyways, he is a liar.  Which god (or God) do you believe in?
Isaiah 43:10 Is God a liar, or is the teaching that “as we are, God once was, as God is, we can become”?  Either the LDS Church is wrong, or God is a liar, or he is stupid.  Take your pick.  My God is intelligent, and He is not just truthful, He is the definition of truth.
Isaiah 44:6, 45:5, 45:21

The person of Jesus

The Christian Trinity teaches that the godhead (Acts 17:29, Romans 1:20, Colossians 2:9) is the one true eternal God, consisting of three distinct persons.  All three are fully God.  God is not three people with the same essence.  The distinct persons of God are not merely different aspects of God.  Instead, the three persons are all fully God.  Jesus was both fully man and fully God.  He claimed to be God.  He accepted worship as God.  To Him, this was fully acceptable.  (see the subject of the Trinity)  To limit God to our understanding is to deny Him, His true glory.

Jesus accepted worship as God:
John 20:28
Hebrews 1:6
Matthew 2:11
Matthew 8:2
Matthew 9:18
John 9:38
Matthew 15:25
Matthew 28:9
Matthew 28:17

By contrast, the disciples did not:
Acts 14:11-15

The book of Revelation shows that the Father and Son receive the same worship:
Revelation 4:10
Revelation 5:11-14

Yet there is only one God, and only God can be worshipped:
Exodus 34:14
Matthew 4:10

John sums it up best:
John 1:1-18

LDS teaching is that Jesus is Jehovah of the Old Testament, yet if (as Mormon teaching states) we are not to pray to Jesus, but only to the Father, then we are in trouble, because the Old Testament commands us to pray to Jehovah
Deuteronomy 4:7
2 Chronicles 7:14
Psalm 5:2
Psalm 32 :6
Jeremiah 29 :7, 12

In the New Testamet, prayers were made to Christ
Acts 7:59
Romans 10:12

Teachings concerning the idea that ELOHIM = God, and Jehovah = Jesus’ pre-mortal spirit form
Genesis 27:20
Dod you know that the Hebrew for LORD is Jehovah, and the Hewbrew word for God is Elohim?
Doesn’t this indicate that Jehovah and Elohim are simply two ways of referring to the same God, who is our Lord and God?
Exodus 3:6-7 (need my laptop with original Hebrew Bible)
Jeremiah 32:18 (need my laptop with original Hebrew Bible)

Did  you know that there are places in the Bible where Jesus alone is referred to as Elohim?
Read John 1:23
Isaiah 40:3 – prophecy concerning John 1:23
Isaiah 9:6

In reading this, does it not lead you to believe that even the Old Testament prophets knew clearly that Jesus would be God come in the flesh, not merely a “spirit son” of God?
Hebrews 2:17

Deuteonomy 6:4 clearly uses Jehovah and Elohim to refer to God.
Passages in the Bible where Jehovah (Yahweh ) is the same as God the Father (Elohim), and not distictly the Son.  (Only a small fraction are listed due to space considerations.)
Exodus 31:13
Psalms 139:7-10
Judges 6:24
Jeremiah 23:6
Exodus 15:25
Exodus 17:8-6
1 Corinthians 1 :30
Colossians 1:27
Ephesians 2 :14
1 Thessalonians 2:2, 6-9
Galatians 3:81 
Thessalonians 3:2
Galatians 1:7
Galatians 1:13
1 Corinthians 15:9
Romans 16:16
1 Thessalonians 2:12
Ephesians 5:5
Ephesians 1:3-5
Romans 8:35
Colossians 1:25
1 Thessalonians 2:13
1 Thessalonians 1:8, 4:15
1 Thessalonians 4:8
Phillipians 1:19
Galatians 5:22
Phillipians 4:9
Colossians 3:15
Colossians 1:2
Philippians 1:2, 4:27
Isaiah 13:6
Philippians 1:6
Galatians 1:15
Romans 5:2
Galatians 1:24
2 Corinthians 8:19, 23

Also, the definition of the Hebrew word Yahweh is as follows:
Romanized  Yhovah
Pronounced yeh-ho-vaw'

from HSN1961; (the) self-Existent or Eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God:

Is Jesus a literal son of God through a sexual act either here or in the spirit world?

Mormon teaching: Psalm 2:7 (read)
Acts 13:33-34  Isn’t it clear that the scripture teaches that “on this day, I have begotten thee” is referring to the ressurrection,  rather than an act of procreation?
Also, Christ is eternal as stated in John 1:1 (beginning here is the same as the beginning in Genesis 1:1 – meaning the very beginning of time and space)
Jesus is called the Word of God as well as the Son of God (John 1:18)  Do we take this to mean that Jesus is literally a word who walked round with the Disciples?

Even the BOM teaches that Jesus is God:
2 Nephi 27:23
Mosiah 3:5-8

Mormon teaching: Matthew 1:18 and 20
Does this teach that God the Father had sexual relations with Mary?
Does this teach that the conception is of the Holy Ghost?
Can a Ghost, without a physical body, have sex?
Is it not more likely that the power of God caused mary to concieve supernaturally?  Is your god so weak that he could not do this?  Could not the God who created the universe, and has power over life and death not cause something as simple as fertilization through His power?  Is this not limiting God to teach that He needed to have sex in order to cause Mary to concieve?

Even the BOM agrees.
Alma 7:10
Luke 1:34-35

If the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost are three separate beings, and the Holy Ghost caused Mary to concieve, how can God the Father be Jesus’ father?
Referring to Jesus as the Son of God implies several things:
God caused Mary to conceieve
Jesus was more than a mere human, yet He became human in order to fulfill His work as redeemer.

However, given the overwhelming evidence that Jesus is actually God the Father, come to earth in the Flesh, Jesus could not literally be the spirit child of God, or a result of an act of physical procreation between God the Father and Mary.

Jesus was not the spirit brother of lucifer.  Christ and Lucifer are two entirely diferent classes: The Creator and the created.
Colossians 1:16 
John 1:1-3
(everything created by Christ, including angels)
Lucifer was a created angelic being – a cherub
Ezekiel 28:13-19 (esp 14)

Lucifer’s goal was not to provide another means of salvtion, it was to take God’s place and be exalted above God.
Isaiah 14:12-15

Doctrines of Man
Satan uses deception to seduce people away from God

1 Kings 22:21-22
2 Thessalonians 2:9
Revelation 20:7-8

What was Satan’s very first lie?

Genesis 3:5 – “ye shall be as gods.”   What does this say about the teaching that we can become gods?
Did you kow that the idea that we can be gods or that we are gods but don’t realize it is the number one belief of the new-age movement, and all occult teachings such as Wicca?

Pre-mortal existence?
Jeremiah 1:5  - does this mean we existed before being conceived ?  No, this means that we are dealing with a God who knows everything, past, present, and future.  He is not limited by time, and he knows all things.  That is all.  He is demonstrating to Jeremiah that He is all knowing. And that He had decided to make Jeremiah, who He knew of beforehand, his prophet. 
Jeramiah also teaches that God created man, not that He procreated man.
Jeremiah 27:5
John 17:5 – we have already covered that Jesus and God are the same.  (John 1:1-3, and other verses)
Difference between Christ, who is from above, and man, who is from this world.
John 3:13, 31
John 8:23-24

(more evidence that Christ is God)
Isaiah 42:8 – God will not share His glory
Matthew 17:1-23 Christ has this glory

Since Jesus is God, we would expect Him to be pre-existent
You and I are not God, so we can’t use John 17:5 to affirm our pre-existence.

Acts 17:28-29
In context, Paul was preaching to the Athenians.  They were not believers in the true God.  Paul is pointing out that we were all created by God, whether they believed it or not.  This is shown by preceding verses (Acts 17:24 and 26).
Malachi 2:10 confirms that “fatherhood” is a comparison in the same way as calling my car “my baby” shows that it is mine.  Only by reading out of context with a pre-concieved notion can we getthe idea that we were spirit babies in a pre-mortal existence.  The same is with Romans 8:16-17.  Read verse 15 – we are children by adoption – God makes us His Children by choice, not by nature. (See Ephesians 1:5)

Genesis 2:7 Is it not clear that God created Man’s physical body and then breathed life, and Man then became a living soul ,not that the soul existed before the body?  Is there any evidence in this passage or any other that a “spirit being” entered a “tabernacle of human flesh”?
1 Corinthians 15:46 – first natural, then spiritual

Attaining Godhood?

Matthew 5:48
Can anybody be perfect?  As covered in the plan of Salvation, nobody can.  Even Jesus Himself said that only God is good.  (Matthew 19:16-17)
No man can be perfect, because we are, by nature, evil (Matthew 12:34, Mark 7:21-23), and lost (Luke 19:10).  He taught that all are sinners, and gave a perfect illustration of our need for a savior in Luke 7:37-48.

Jesus is pointing out here that we should, as faithful followers of Him, we should not be willfully sinful.  He had just gotten done demonstrating the extremely high standards of goodness (as outlined in the plan of salvation – the law section).  He was not giving us a command to be perfect, but giving us a goal to strive for in order to be the “salt of the earth” and bring glory to God among men.

If you insist on taking this as a literal command to be perfect, note that the verse does not say “become ye perfect”, it says “be ye perfect”.  If you want to save yourself from sin without the Grace of God, you would have to already be perfect, not be progressing towards perfection.

Isaiah 43:10 – If you claim that he became God, and that we can become God, is God demenstrating in thisverse, His 
Ignorance, or 
b. dishonesty? 
BOM Alma 11:22-31 – same question

John 6:47
Hath is present – it does not say we will attain it at a future date, but that we “have” current tense.
It also that each one that believeth on me hath eternal life, not all people as the LDS church teaches. 
Matthew 19:16 answered in 19:25-26 and clearly says that with Man this is impossible, but with God (by His power) it is.  Further, that being saved and gaining eternal life is equated with entering into the Kingdom of Heaven(Mathew 19:23)
Mark 10:17 -> Mark 10:26-27 ->Mark 10:24
Luke 18:18, 1:26-27, 18:24

Eternal life is always portrayed in the Bible as something received by faith in Christ, not by works or following religious doctrines (refer to plan of salvation)
John 3:16, 6:28-20
There is not one single instance in the Bible where eternal life means attaining godhood.

Is Baptism necessary for salvation?
Luke 23:39-43
39 One of the criminals who hung there hurled insults at him: “Aren’t you the Christ? Save yourself and us!” 40But the other criminal rebuked him. “Don’t you fear God,” he said, “since you are under the same sentence? 41 We are punished justly, for we are getting what our deeds deserve. But this man has done nothing wrong.” 42 Then he said, “Jesus, remember me when you come into your kingdom.” 43 Jesus answered him, “I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise.”

Acts 10:43-48
43 All the prophets testify about him that everyone who believes in him receives forgiveness of sins through his name.” 44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. 45 The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on the Gentiles. 46 For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God. Then Peter said, 47 “Can anyone keep these people from being baptized with water? They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.” 48 So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked Peter to stay with them for a few days.

Luke 3:15-16
15 The people were waiting expectantly and were all wondering in their hearts if John might possibly be the Christ. 16 John answered them all, “I baptize you with water. But one more powerful than I will come, the thongs of whose sandals I am not worthy to untie. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.

1 Corinthians 12:12-13
12 The body is a unit, though it is made up of many parts; and though all its parts are many, they form one body. So it is with Christ. 13 For we were all baptized by one Spirit into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, slave or free—and we were all given the one Spirit to drink.

Galatians 5:1-6
1 It is for freedom that Christ has set us free. Stand firm, then, and do not let yourselves be burdened again by a yoke of slavery. 2 Mark my words! I, Paul, tell you that if you let yourselves be circumcised, Christ will be of no value to you at all. 3 Again I declare to every man who lets himself be circumcised that he is obligated to obey the whole law. 4 You who are trying to be justified by law have been alienated from Christ; you have fallen away from grace. 5 But by faith we eagerly await through the Spirit the righteousness for which we hope. 6 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision has any value. The only thing that counts is faith expressing itself through love.
Acts 2:38?
The word for “for” here, is:
Romanized  eis
Pronounced ice
a primary preposition; to or into (indicating the point reached or entered), of place, time, or (figuratively) purpose (result, etc.); also in adverbial phrases:
It is indicating a point entered – or because the point has already been reached.  An example of common usage of this word today is “I’m taking asprin for my headache”.  Are you taking the asprin so you can get a headache?
However, there is no textual evidence for either of these two definitions when reading this in cintext.  If the text is not clear in any subject of scripture, we go to the principle of scripture interperets scripture, and look for the other mentions of salvation. (refer to plan of salvation)
Given that the overwhelming volume of scripture tells us that we are saved through grace alone, and the additional evidence from scripture that following religious ordinances does not have any saving power, we must conclude that the word would have been better translated as “because of” rather than “in order to get” remission of sins.

John 3:1-5
This is not even remotely speaking about Baptism.  The Pharisee clearly asks how one can be born again.  How can a man be born when he is old?
Being born again, means that we receive new life from Jesus when we place our faith in Him.  We then are “born” into God’s eternal family (1 Peter 1:23) and we are a new person. (Romans 6:5-6)
The “born of the Spirit” part of this is referring to our birth into God’s family, our regeneration, and salvation.  The “Born of Water”, then is our physical birth, accompanied by the breaking of the water.

Put in order, the Pharisee asks, “I was born already, how can I be born again?”
Jesus answers “you were born of water, to be saved, you must be born of the spirit.”  This is furhter clarified on the next passage by saying “That which is born of the flesh is of the flesh, and that which is born of the spirit is of the spirit.” Jesus repeated himself for clarification, and has no mention of a baptism where He is clarifying Himself.

Mark 16:16
Notice that is says “he that believeth not shall be damned”, not “he that is baptized not is damned”.  Baptism is not what saves in this verse, either.

1 Corinthians 1:17
1 Corinthians 15:1-2

Baptism is merely a sign to others and to God that we are believers.  Baptism is symbolic of the death and resurrection of Christ.  (Going under symbolizes His death and burial, coming up, His resurrection – this is why baptism by sprinkling is unbiblical.)  We are symbolically showing that we have accepted His death, His resurrection, and the hardships and rewards that go with it.  John the Baptist himself knew he was not saving anyone, but preparing the way for the one who had the power to do so.

Is Church membership necessary?

The Bible has not one reference to joingin a Church.  The Church is defined in the Bible as all believers in Christ, and is God’s Church, not a prophets.

1 Corinthians
Romans 12:1-5
Galatians 3:26-28
Acts 2:47, 20:28

It is also defined as a local Church, where believers congregated, which is important for all Christians. (Hebrews 10:25)
 The Church is not needed to mediate between us and the Lord (Timothy 2:5)
We come to the Father through Christ, not the Church, not prophets, apostles, or presidents (John 14:6)

Places in the Bible where we are commanded to join a Church:
…

Places in the Bible where a prophet is the head of the Church:
…

Christ is the head of the Church:
1 Corinthians
Romans 12:1-5
Galatians 3:26-28
Ephesians 4:15-15
Romans 7:4
Ephesians 5:24

Can good works save us?
The plan of salvation is foolishness to Mormons because of the following verses:
James 2:17, 26 
However, what James is teaching is that some were professing to be Christians, but had had no true conversion.  They had perhaps, acceptedthe idea that Jesus rose from the dead intellectually, but had not demonstrated faith, and were not showing the fruits that a true Christian should produce.  All he was doing was poitig out that true faith results in good works.  We produce the fruits of the Spirit because of our salvation, and we can tell when somebody has received Christ by the changes Christ makes in them.  See definition of faith in plan of salvation.
Put simply, he is pointing out the difference between true faith and feigned faith.

1 John 2:3-6
The entire message of 1 John was written for a reason.  What is his reason for writing this epistle?  John 1:4 explains.
This entire book is about growing to maturity as a Christian.  We are all born into the family of God when we are saved, but like all newborns,m we need to grow.  The key aspect of growth is developing our personal relationship with our Creator.  1 John is telling us how to grow.  Just as you cannot have a good relationship with your parents if you disobey them, you cannot experience the true joy of fellowship with the Lord if you work against him.  And just like with your parents, you may not have a good relationship with them, it does not change the fact that they are your parents and you are apart of the family.

This could not mean that we are to be without sin because of the preceding verses: (1:8-10)
This is even further clarified by verses 2:1and 2, where it says, I am writing this to you to encourage you not to sin, but if you do sin, Jesus is our advocate with the Father, he is the propitiation for our sins.  Propitiation means “payment”.  In this context, versus 1 and 2 tell us that 3 and 4 cannot mean that 5 and 6 tell us we must keep the commandments to be saved from our sins.  The only other reading that can be taken from this is in the broader context of the massage as stated I verse 1:4.

The Bible is very clear that our works cannot save us.  All our righteousness is as filthy rags.
Proverbs 14:12
Isaiah 64:6
Psalms 51:16-17
Mark 12:32-34
Hebrews 10:18
James 2:10
Therefore, we cannot be saved by obedience to a Church, to prophets, or by any good work.  The only means of salvation that taught in the Bible is through faith.  Once we have our salvation, we will naturally do the will of our Lord because of the gift of salvation – out of gratitude and love, and because the Spirit of God now lives in us and is producing the desire and capability to please God.  The passages such as those cited are a means of allowing us to determine if we are truly saved, or if we are giving mere lip service to God’s gift.

Philippians 2:12
Does this teach that we are to do works to sve ourselves?  Read the next sentence: For it is God that worketh in you both to will and do of his good pleasure.

If the next line is telling us that it is God who works in us to want to please Him and do what pleases Him, how can we be the ones working towards salvation.  

If you read the preceding texts and following texts, it is clear that what Paul is saying is that since Paul is no longer present at this local Church, they can trust on God’s guidance from within themselves because God is working within them.

Claiming to be able to reach perfection by following ordinances or being good is boastful, which is an affront to God.
Ephesians 2:8-9

Do we need to abstain from hot drinks?
Acts 7:18-23
What do you think Jesus meant when he said that what goes into a man cannot defile him?

Temple work
#1 – this is ordinances and works, which we have covered.
#2 do you need to be worthy (earn a temple recommend) to enter into the temple?
Luke 18:10-14
Does this not teach that the unworthy are allowed into the Temple?
Reading the verse again, what Did Jesus think about the one who went to the temple thinking he was worthy, and not like the other less worthy people?

One other question.  Joseph Fielding Smith said that the “greatest commandment given to us, and made obligatory, is the temple work in our own behalf and in behalf of our dead.”

Mark 12:29-31

Who is right, the “prophet”, or Jesus?

Book of Mormon: References from the Bible?
Isaiah 29:11-12
“The vision of all is become unto you as the words of a book that is sealed” = the visions that God gave to the prophets had become as meaningless to the Israelites as a book that was sealed.

However, if you believe that the sealed book was the golden plates, this could still not be a description of the book of Mormon for several reasons:
Professor Anthon certified for Joseph Smith that the translation was correct.  However, he could only have certified this if he had read the original sealed book.  The passage said the learned man could not read it.
In the passage, it says it went from the learned man to the unlearned.  The “plates” went from Smith (unlearned) to Anthon (learned)
In Isaiah, the book was given to the unlearned man and he simply said he was unlearned. He did not attempt to translate it.

Ezekiel 37:16-17

Read the rest of the passage (thru vs 28).  I verse 22, the sticks are clearly identified as God’s people, the children of Israel, not two books, and He would make them one nation.
David would be their king, in Israel, not Salt Lake City. (This was fulfilled, of course)
Using this to call the Book of Mormon and the Bible the two sticks, or the Nephites and Israelites as the two sticks is a blatant case of taking scripture out of context to twist it.

2 Corinthians 13:1-2 – stating that the BOM is a second “witness”
This is a reference to Deuteronomy 19:15, and is dealing with correcting mistakes in the Corinthian Church.  The Bible is made up of 66 books written by dozens of authors.  It already has all the witnesses it needs.

James 1:5 – Pray about the validity of the BOM?

Should we pray about committing adultery?  Incest?  Murder?  No, because the Bible already teaches us these things.  Likewise, Galatians 1:6-8 tells us explicitly not follow a gospel that perverts (contradicts) the revelation we already have. The teaching of the LDS church clearly contradicts the Bible on many subjects.  They also contradict each other.

Would you pray about the truthfulness of Anton LaVey’s Satanic Bible?
Also, 1 Thessalonians 5:21 instructs us to test all things to see if they are true.  Acts 17:11-12 encourages us to follow the example of the Bereans by testing claims against the Bible.  1 John 4:1 also says to test the spirits.
BTW, which Book of Mormon should I be praying about?  The original (1830) or the one you have now?

Joseph Smith translation of the Bible
Revelation 22:18 (compare Mormon version with mine – R 5:6, 19:15)
Do you really want to place your faith in a man who blatantly violated this?

JSV Genesis 40:33 – Doesn’t it strike you as odd that JS would add a passage to the Bible that predicted himself?
Matthew 5:18
Christ often cited the absolute authority of scripture by saying “as it is written”.  If Christ did not claim authority to change scripture, do you not find it odd that JS and the rest of the “prophets” have no problem with it?
Baptism for the Dead explained: 
This appears only once in 1 Corinthians.  During the passage, Paul is attempting to defend the idea of resurrection.  He uses the fact that some group is practicing baptism for the dead to show that they believe in resurrection.  Notice that in this passage, Paul refers to the group practicing this as “they”.  In every other passage referring to the believers, he uses “we”, “you”, “and “I”.  This is the only time the word “they” is used to refer to a group following a teaching.  Note that he also did not endorse this practice. He merely mentioned it in the context of showing that there are groups besides Christians who believe in a resurrection.  In every other instance in 1 Corinthians where the word “they” is used, it is used in reference to a group other than the Church, such as unbelievers (2:8, 14:23), vain people (3:20), Pharisees (9:13), fleshly people (as opposed to Godly (9:25)), the Jews who were overthrown by God in the wilderness (10:5), lusters after evil things (10:6) the Gentiles, who sacrifice to devils (10:18, 20), people who have not yet been saved (10:33), deceived people (14:21), those who did not follow Christ (15:8).

The idea of a spirit prison or any hope of redemption after our physical death is annulled by Jesus’ telling of what happened to Lazarus in Luke 16:19-31.  The rich man went immediately to a plae of suffering, and had no hope of ever escaping the suffering.

Hebrews 9:27 – judgement comes after physical death with no intermediate steps.

Even the BOM teaches that there is no hope after death of repentance:
Alma 34:31
2 Nephi 9:38
Mosiah 26:25-27

Eternal Marriage?

Matthew 22:30

Gospel preached to the dead?
1 Peter 3:18-19
The Greek word for “preached” is kerusso, which means “proclaimed”, as in “proclaimed victory”.  Prison is another term used for Hell.  Given that the Bible teaches there is no salvation after death, would it not make more sense, that after he died and was raised as a penalty for our sins, which was the ultimate defeat of Satan, that he would proclaim victory over Satan and his demons?

1 Peter 4:6
This is simply talking about those who had heard the gospel, and had since died as martyrs.  They were judged by the ungodly people of the time(verses 3 and 4) to be heretics, or were  hated for Christ’s name, but live now in the spirit.
It is a word of encouragement for those that are persecuted for Jesus’ sake.  The next passages are about being charitable during suffering,  .A word of encouragement during teaching on suffering is not unusual.

Explanation of John 10:16
This is talking about the Gentiles – Christ is telling the disciples that salvation is not only for the Jews, but the Gentiles also. (Acts 10:45, 11:18)  To read any more into this is to simply make something up that is not there.

Matthew 15:24 – the Lost Sheep of Israel

LDS teaching: This is a reference to the Israelites in America
Truth: Read it in context: He is telling the woman that he is not there for the Gentiles, but for the Israelites, who are in a lost condition.  As stated in many places, he has come to bring the lost sheep to repentance.  (Note that Jesus healed her daughter even though she was not a Jew because of her faith)  Compare to Matthew 10:5-6 – did the disciples go to America?  No, they were in Israel.

Priesthood Authority

Is it true that LDS theology teaches that if a baptism is conducted by someone with no authority, the baptism has no effect?

Since Joseph Smith had not been baptized, how could he have had the authority to baptize Oliver Crowdery?

Since Oliver Crowdery was improperly baptized, how could he have had the authority to baptize Joseph Smith?

If priesthood authority came down through two improperly baptized men, how can any Mormon claim to have restored priesthood?

Where does the Bible say that Melchizedek transferred his priesthood to Abraham?
If it is not in the Bible, isn’t the teaching anti-Biblical?
Hebrews 7:23-24 Did you know that the Greek word for unchangeable literally means “without successors” and “untransferrable”?
If it is untransferrable, how can we gain it?
Isn’t it clear from the text that we can’t attain it because “he continueth ever”?
How do you explain the absolute lack of reference to any ordination to, offices in, or duties of the Melchizedek priesthood, or to anyone holding it but Jesus?

Hebrews 7:11-12 Does this not clearly state that the priesthood (Melchizedek and Aaronic) was no longer needed?
Can any LDS person claim Aaronic priesthood?
Numbers 3:6-12
What are the duties of the Aaronic priesthood?
Exodus 29:38-44
Hebrews 7:14
There were special ordination rites for the Levitical priesthood. Do the LDS priests follow these?
Leviticus 8
Hebrews 5 tells us that Jesus alone was able to claim Melchizedek priesthood.

However, general priesthood belongs to all believers in Christ.
Revelation 1:5-6
1 Peter 2:5

One final problem with LDS Priesthood claim.

The Book of Abraham says that all Egyptians were cursed and could not hold the priesthood. (1:21, 22, 27)
Joseph Smith claimed to be of the tribe of Ephraim (Doctrines of Salvation 3:247)
Ephraim was half Egyptian (Genesis 41:45, 50-51)
Since the BOM people were from the tribe of Manasseh (Alma 10:3), doesn’t that mean they could not hold the priesthood, either?

Adam, Eve, and the Fall

This is my understanding on the LDS teaching on Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden:
Before the fall, Adam and Eve were not mortal
Because they were not mortal, they could not have children
When they sinned and lost their mortality, they then had the ability to bear children
This is good, because it allowed them to produce physical bodies for all the spirit babies waiting to come to earth.
Without the fall, eternal progression would not be possible.

God commanded them to be fruitful and multiply immediately after creating them (Genesis 1:28).  The fall occurs in chapter 3.

According to Genesis 3:16-19, did God think it was good for Adam to disobey Him?
LDS doctrine teaches that this was not a sin because it was part of God’s master plan.
(2 Nephi 2:22-25)
LDS doctrine also teaches that there is no original sin.
Romans 5:12
Romans 5:19
BOM 
2 Nephi 2:21
Mosiah 3:19
Since D&C  20:9 claims that the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the everlasting Gospel, and original sin is taught in it, how can you reject the concept of original sin?
LDS doctrine also holds that since there is no original sin, babies are born sinless.
Psalm 51:5
Genesis 8:21
Ephesians 2:3 (by nature)

Jesus’ Mission

LDS teaching: His death provided general salvation, but we must earn personal salvation (which includes exaltation to godhood)
Bible teaches that Jesus came to forgive sins, not enable us to be immortal.
Matthew 1:21
Matthew 9:2-6
Matthew 20:28
Matthew 26:28
Mark 2:5-12
Mark 4:12
Luke 1:76-78
Luke 5:19-23
Luke 7:48
Luke 24:47
John 1:29
John 5:24
John 8:24
Acts 3:19
Acts 5:31
Acts 10:43
Acts 13:38
Acts 22:16
Acts 26:18
Romans 3:23-25
Romans 3:28
Romans 4:7-8
Romans 5:1
Romans 5:16
Romans 6:11
Romans 6:18
Romans 6:22
Romans 8:2
Romans 11:27
1 Corinthians 5:3
1 Corinthians 5:21
Galatians 3:8
Ephesians 1:7
Ephesians 2:2
Ephesians 2:8-9
Colossians 1:14
Colossians 2:10-11, 13
Hebrews 1:1-3
Hebrews 2:17
Hebrews 8:12
Hebrews 9:26, 28
Hebrews 10:12
James 5:15
1 Peter 2:24
1 Peter 3:18
1 John 1:1
1 John 2:2
1 John 2:12
1 John 3:5
1 John 4:10
Revelation 1:5

LDS doctrine teaches that to attain forgiveness, you must be good enough, that you must perform temple ceremonies, that you must be a member of the One True Church, etc... What does the Bible teach you must do to be saved?
Matthew 9:13
Matthew 11:28-29
John 1:12
John 3:18
John 3:36
John 5:24
John 6:28-29, 35, 47
Acts 2:21
Acts 3:19
Acts 10:43
Acts 13:38-39
Acts 16:30-31
Romans 1:16
Romans 3:25, 28
Romans 4:5
Romans 5:1, 9
Romans 10:4
Romans 10:9-13
1 John 1:9
1 John 3:23-24